BIODIVERSITY TEST PAPER

BIODIVERSITY TEST PAPER

1. Which year has been named International Year of Biodiversity by the United Nations?

1. 2005             2. 2008              3. 2010

 

2. The word "biodiversity" is a combination of which two words?

1. Biology and diversity        

2. Biomass and diversity       

3. Biosphere and diversity

 

3. How many orangutans disappear each year as result of palm oil farming?

1. 100             2. 500                3. 5000

 

4. How many million hectares of forest are destroyed each year around the world?

1. Approximately 10 million  

2. Approximately 13 million

3. Approximately 15 million

 

5. What is the Green and Blue Corridor?

1. A car-free lane for the tram system

2. A commitment by the Grenelle Environnement aimed at protecting existing natural areas and re-establishing ecological continuity in places where it has disappeared

3. A map showing the location of the Earth's exotic species

 

6. What does the term "locavore" mean?

1. A bacteria  

2. An endangered species

3. The consumer who eats only locally grown food products

 

7. Which percentage of the world's population is still dependent upon "home-made" remedies produced from herbs and plants?

1. 25%             2. 50%                 3. 75%

 

8. What is the name of the French plan designed to bring about a 50% reduction in the use of pesticides within 10 years?

1. The "Eco-phyto" plan

2. The "Pure eau" plan

3. The "Eco l'eau" plan

 

9. On the IUCN 2011 red list, how many species are threatened with extinction and listed as such?

1. Fewer than 400       

2. Approximately 10,000

3. Approximately 19,000

 

10. How many species are under threat in mainland France?

1. Around 10

2. Around 100               

3. A thousand

 

11. What is France's global ranking in terms of the number of animal species under threat?

1. 22                                  2. 12                       3. 8

 

12. When did the last female Alpine ibex disappear in the Pyrénées ?

1. 1980                              2. 2000                  3. 2010

 

13. Forests are home to what percentage of the world's biodiversity?

1. 80%                               2. 50%                   3. 20%

 

14. What proportion of plants need bees to pollinate?

1. 50%                               2. 60%                   3. 80%

 

15. The Ozone layer saves from lethal UV. It mainly absorbs-

(a) UV-A                            b) UV-B                   (c) UV-A & B      (d) UV-B & C

 

16. __________ are not native to a particular area, and can upset the balance of the ecosystem.

(a) Exotic species

(b) Ultraviolet waves

(c) Decomposers

(d) Reintroduction programs

 

17. What is the difference between a threatened species and an endangered species?

(a) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered An endangered species has population numbers so low that it is likely to become extinct

(b) A threatened species is already extinct. An endangered species means that the population's numbers have increased greatly over the last 5 years

(c) A threatened species means that the population is likely to become endangered.An endangered species is already extinct

(d) A threatened species and an endangered species are the same thing

 

18. Which of these programs is used to preserve a species facing extinction?

(a) edge effects

(b) sustainable use

(c) natural resources

(d) captive breeding

 

19. Which of the following countries has the highest biodiversity?

a. Brazil             b. South Africa                  c. Russia               d. India

 

20. Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity?

a. Destruction of habitat          

b. Invasion by alien species

c. Keeping animals in zoological parks

d. Over-exploitation of natural resources

 

21. Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context?

a. Lantana

b. Cynodon

c. Parthenium

d. Eichhornia

 

22. Where among the following will you find pitcher plant?

a. Rain forest of North-East India         

b. Sunderbans

c. Thar Desert

d. Western Ghats

 

23. Which one of the following is not a major characteristic feature of biodiversity hot spots?

a. Large number of species

b. Abundance of endemic species

c. Large number of exotic species

d. Destruction of habitat

 

24. Match the animals given in column A with their location in column B:

Column A                                Column B

(i) Dodo                                   (a) Africa

(ii) Quagga                             (b) Russia

(iii) Thylacine                       (c) Mauritius

(iv) Stellar's sea cow         (d) Australia

Choose the correct match from the following:

(a) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

(b) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b

(c) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d

(d) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

 

25. What is common to the following plants: Nepenthes, Psilotum, Rauwolfia and Aconitum?

a. All are ornamental plants

b. All are phylogenic link species

c. All are prone to over exploitation

d. All are exclusively present in the Eastern Himalayas.

 

26. The one-horned rhinoceros is specific to which of the following sanctuary

a. Bhitar Kanika   

b. Bandipur   

c. Kaziranga  

d. Corbett park

 

27. Amongst the animal groups given below, which one has the highest percentage of endangered species?

a. Insects   

b. Mammals     

c. Amphibians     

d. Reptiles

 

28. Which one of the following is an endangered plant species of India?

a. Rauwolfia serpentine           

b. Santalum album (Sandal wood)

c. Cycas beddonei       

d. All of the

 

29. What is common to Lantana, Eichhornia and African catfish?

a. All are endangered species of India.

b. All are key stone species.

c. All are mammals found in India.

d. All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.

 

30. The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to:

a. Increased number of predatory birds.

b. Over exploitation by humans.

c. Non-availability of the food.

d. Bird flu virus infection.

 

31. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Parthenium is an endemic species of our country.

b. African catfish is not a threat to indigenous catfishes.

c. Steller's sea cow is an extinct animal.

d. Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass.

 

32. Among the ecosystem mentioned below, where can one find maximum biodiversity?

a. Mangroves               

b. Desert

c. Coral reefs 

d. Alpine meadows

 

33. Which of the following forests is known as the 'lungs of the planet Earth'?

a. Tiaga forest                               

b. Tundra forest

c. Amazon rain forest

d. Rain forests of North East India

 

34. The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained from:

a. Datura             

b. Rauwolfia      

c. Atropa         

d. Papaver

 

35. Which of the following group of plants exhibit more species diversity?

a. Angiosperms            

b. Algae           

c. Bryophytes

d. Fungi

 

36. Which of the below mentioned regions exhibit less seasonal variations?

a. Tropics               

b. Temperates    

c. Alpines

d. Both (a) & (b)

 

37. The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is known as:

a. CITES Convention

b. The Earth Summit

c. G-16 Summit            

d. MAB Programme

 

38. What is common to the techniques (i) in vitro fertilisation, (ii) Cryopreservation and (iii) tissue culture?

a. All are in situ conservation methods.

b. All are ex situ conservation methods.

c. All require ultra modern equipment and large space.

d. All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms.

 

39. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. Salim Ali center for Ornithology and Natural History situated in Coimbatore.

B. In India, maximum e-waste generated by Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh & Uttar Pradesh.

C. In India, maximum e-waste generated by Mumbai, Delhi, Bangalore

D. Himalaya Forest Research Institute located at Dehradun.

 

40. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

A. Tropical Forest Research Institute                    1. Jabalpur

B. Rain Forest Research Institute                           2. Jorhat

C. Centre for Animals and Environment             3. Chennai

D. Center for Environment Education                  4. Ahmedabad

 

41. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. CFC is permitted to be used in meter dose inhaler for respiratory disease

B. In Cancun summit decision was taken to setup climate fund, technology mechanism, an adaptation framework.

C. National Ganga river basin authority constituted in 2010 under the chairmanship of Prime Minister to clean river Ganga and it will ensure that by 2020 no untreated municipal sewage and industrial effluents flow into Ganga.

D. First session of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee Meeting (INC-I) on mercury held on June 7-11, 2010 in Stockholm, Sweden.

ANSWER SHEET OF BIODIVERSITY TEST PAPER

1. 2010

2. Biology and diversity

3. 5000

4. Approximately 13 million

5. A commitment by the Grenelle Environnement aimed at protecting existing natural areas and re-establishing ecological continuity in places where it has disappeared

6. The consumer who eats only locally grown food products

7. 75%

8. The "Eco-phyto" plan

9. Approximately 19,000

10. Around 100

11. 8

12. 2000

13. 80%

14. 80%

15. d

16. a

17. a

18. d

19.a

20.c

21.b

22.a

23.d

24.d

25.c

26.c

27.c

28.d

29.d

30.b

31.b

32.c

33.c

34.b

35.d

36.a

37.b

38.b

39.d, Shimla

40.c, Bangalore

41.c. 2009

ANSWER SHEET OF ANCIENT INDIA TEST PAPER

ANSWER SHEET OF ANCIENT INDIA TEST PAPER

1.d        2.a          3.d          4.b          5.b            6.a

7.c        8.b          9.a          10.d        11.c          12.a

13.d     14.d         15.d         16.d        17.a          18.c

19.c      20.c        21.d         22.a        23.a          24.c

25.c      26.a        27.a

INDIAN ECONOMY TEST PAPER

INDIAN ECONOMY TEST PAPER

1. India is regarded as a country of 'Demographic Dividend'. This is due to

a) its high population in the age group below 15 years

b) its high population in the age group of 15-64 years

c) its high population in the age group above 65 years

d) its high total population

 

2. A country's natural capital includes all of the following except

a) forest

b) water

c) roads

d) minerals

 

3. What percentage of the total population of the world resides in India, as estimated in 2011?

a) 15                  b) 17.5        c) 20                 d) 22.5

 

4. Which of the following is used for the measurement of distribution of income?

a) Laffer Curve

b) Engel's Law

c) Gini Lorenz Curve

d) Phillip Curve

 

5. During which decade did the population record a negative growth rate in India?

a) 1921-31

b) 1911-1921

c) 1941-51

d) 1931-1941

 

6. Mixed economy means an economy where

a) both agriculture and industry are equally promoted by the state

b) there is co-existence of private sector along with the public sector

c) there is importance of small scale industries along with heavy industries

d) economy is controlled by military as well as civilian rulers

 

7. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development

1. Low birth rate with low death rate

2. High birth rate with high death rate

3. High birth rate with low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below

a) 1, 2, 3

b) 2, 1, 3

c) 2, 3, 1

d) 3, 2, 1

 

8. Consider the following

1. Hotels and restaurants

2. Motor transport undertakings

3. Newspaper establishments

4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which of the above can have the 'Social Security coverage under Employees' State Insurance Scheme?

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 3 and 4

 

9. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development

b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finance among the public sector undertakings

c) It ensures transparency in financial administration

d) None of the above

 

10. Which one of the following companies launched the e-choupal to bring inclusive market in India?

a) RIL

b) Tata

c) ITC

d) Birla Groups

 

11. Which one of the following institutions prepares the National Income Estimates in India?

a) Planning Commission

b) Reserve Bank of India

c) Central Statistical Organization

d) Indian Statistics Institute

 

12. Consider the following statements

The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British

2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts are restored the self-confidence of Indians

3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) Only 1

 

13. In which of the following types of the economy are the factors of production owned individually?

a) Socialist

b) Capitalist

c) Mixed

d) Both 'a' and 'b'

 

14. Which one of the following is correct about the Laffer Curve?

a) It is the relationship between the unemployment and growth rate of GDP of a country

b) It is the relationship between the inflation and the trend of changes in labour pattern

c) It is the relationship between government revenue raised by taxation and all possible rates of taxation

d) None of the above

 

15. Who was the Chairman of the 13^th Finance Commission of India?

a) Indira Rajaraman

b) C. Rangarajan

c) Vijay Kelkar               

d) None of the above

 

16. With what purpose is the Government of India promoting the concept of 'Mega Food Park'?

1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry.

2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.

3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) Only 1

 

17. Consider the following statements

1. NTPC is the largest power utility in India

2. ONGC accounts for half of the LPG production in India

3. IOC operates all the refineries in India

4. The India Ordinance Factory is the largest departmentally run industrial undertaking in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) 1 and 4

 

18. Which one of the following ports of India is the Open Sea Port?

a) Haldia

b) Mumbai

c) Chennai

d) Vishakhapatnam

 

19. Which one of the following is the best source of generating electricity in India from the view point of sustainable development?

a) Coal

b) Mineral oil and gas  

c) Hydro-electricity

d) Atomic energy

 

20. Which one of the following is not an important industry of Chhattisgarh from the point of view of production?

a) Iron and Steel

b) Cement

c) Chemical

d) Aluminium

 

21. Which one of the following maintains the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund established in 1995-96?

a) Reserve Bank of India

b) State Bank of India

c) Regional Rural Banks

d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

 

22. Bhilai Steel Plant is

a) Private Sector Enterprise

b) Public Sector Enterprise

c) Cooperative Sector Enterprise

d) Public Private Joint Venture Enterprise

 

23. Which of the following is not a harbour?

a) Kandla

b) Cochin

c) Mangalore

d) Bengaluru

 

24. Where was the electricity supply first introduced in India?

a) Kolkata

b) Chennai

c) Mumbai

d) Darjeeling

 

25. Which one of the following is related with Bharat Nirman Scheme?

a) Foodgrain production self sufficiency

b) Family welfare programme

c) Infrastructure development

d) Employment generation programme

 

26. Which king of the power accounts for the largest share of power generation in India?

a) Nuclear

b) Hydro-electricity

c) Thermal

d) Solar

 

27. Consider the following components

1. Bring an additional one crore hectares under assured irrigation

2. To provide road connectivity to all villages that has a population of 2000.

3. To give telephone connectivity to the remaining villages.

Which of the components given above is/are included in the Bharat Nirman Scheme?

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) Only 2

 

28. Which one of the following is not a nuclear power centre?

a) Narora

b) Kakrapara

c) Chamera

d) Kota

 

29. Among other things, which one of the following was the purpose for which Deepak Parekh Committee was constituted?

a) To study the current socio-economic conditions of certain minority communities

b) To suggest measures for financing the development of infrastructure

c) To frame a policy on the genetically modified organisms

d) To sugges6t measures to reduce the fiscal deficit in the Union budget.

 

30. With reference to India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

a) IPCL is the largest Indian petrochemical company

b) Reliance is the largest private sector company in India

c) MTNL is listed to NYSE

d) BSNL is the first telecom service organization in India to launch a nationwide cellular service at once.

 

31. In the context of India's Five year Plans. A shift in pattern of Industrialization with lower emphasis of the heavy industry and move on infrastructure begins in

a) Fourth Plan                b) Sixth Plan    c) Eight Plan      d) Tenth Plan

 

32. In the post independence period, economic reform were first introduced in India under

a) Janata Party Government (19770

b) Indira Gandhi Government (1980)

c) Rajiv Gandhi Government (1985)

d) PV Narsimha Rao Government (1990)

 

33. Five Year Plan had an objective of 'Rapid industrialization with particular emphasis on development of basic and heavy industries?

a) First

b) Second

c) Third

d) Fourth

 

34. Under which plan did the government introduce an agricultural strategy which gave rise to green revolution in India?

a) Second Five Year Plan

b) Third Five Year Plan

c) Fourth Five Year Plan

d) Sixth Five Year Plan

 

35. In India, the concept of 'minimum needs' and directed anti-poverty programmes were the innovation of

a) Fourth Five Year Plan

b) Fifth Five Year Plan

c) Sixth Five Year Plan

d) Seventh Five Year Plan

 

36. The Rolling Plan concept in Nation Planning was introduced by

a) Indira Gandhi Government

b) The National Front Government

c) The Janata Party Government          

d) Rajiv Gandhi Government

 

37. Which one of the following is not within the duties of the Planning Commission?

a) To define the stage of growth and suggest allocation of resources

b) To make an assessment of the material, capital and human resource of the country

c) To determine the nature of machinery required for the implementation of plan proposal

d) To prepare the annual central budget

 

38. Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include which one of the following?

a) Reduction of poverty

b) Extension of employment opportunities

c) Reduction of gender inequality

d) Strengthening of capital market

 

39. Which one of the following can aid in furthering the Government's objective of inclusive growth?

1. Promoting self-help group.

2. Promoting micro, small and medium enterprises

3. Implementing the rights to educaton

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a) 1, 2 and 3

b) 1 and 3

c) 1 and 2

d) Only 2

 

40. During which Five Year Plan was the emergency clamped, new election took place and Janata Party was elected?

a) Third plan

b) Fourth plan

c) Fifth plan

d) Sixth plan

 

41. Who presides over the National Development Council of India?

a) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission of India

b) Prime Minister of India

c) Finance Minister of India

d) Vice President of India

 

42. Which one of the following has the final authority in India to approve Five Year Plan?

a) Union Council of Ministers

b) Planning Commission

c) National Development Council

d) Prime Minister

 

43. Consider the following statements Indian Planning

1. Second Five Year Plan emphasis on the establishment of heavy industries

2. The Third Five Year Plan introduced the concept of import substitution as a strategy for industrialization

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

44. Which one of the following is the theme of the approach paper of the Eleventh Five Year Plan?

a) Indicative planning       

b) Growth with social justice

c) Towards faster and more inclusive growth

d) Planning for the prosperity

 

45. The Bombay Plan drafted by GD Birla and JRD Tata emphasized on

a) that the economy should be left to the dynamic investment by the private sector in heavy industries

b) the public sector investments in infrastructure and heavy industries

c) annual planning

d) that the private sector should foot the bill of intensive and low return investments in the heavy industries.

 

46. Which one among the following statements regarding the Eight Five statements regarding the Eight Five Year Plan in India is not correct?

a) The plan was postponed by two years because of the political upheavals at the centre

b) It aimed at the high growth of both agriculture and manufacturing  sectors

c) Its emphasis was on growth in export and import, improvement in the trade and current account deficit

d) It set before itself two principal objectives of 'growth with stability' and 'growth with justice'.

 

47. Planning in India drew on

a) the new economic programme of Lenin

b) the Fabian Socialism of Sidney and Beatrice Web

c) the British Welfare mechanism

d) new democratic development packages

 

48. Which one of the following was the first Chairman of Planning Commission of India?

a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

b) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

d) JB Kriplani

 

49. Which one among the following statements about the Globalization is not correct?

a) Advocates of the globalization argue that it will result in greater economic growth

b) Critics of the globalization argue that it will result in greater economic disparity

c) Advocates of the globalization argue that it will result in culture homogenization

d) Critics of the globalization argue that it will result in culture homogenization

 

50. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that

a) big banks should try to open offices in each district

b) there should be stiff competition among the various nationaliz4ed banks

c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development

d) all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

 

ANSWER SHEET OF INDIAN ECONOMY TEST PAPER

1.b      2.c          3.b          4.c          5.b

6.b      7.c          8.a          9.d          10.c

11.c    12.d       13.b       14.c        15.c

16.a    17.d       18.a        19.c        20.c

21.d   22.b       23.d       24.d       25.c

26.c    27.b       28.c        29.b       30.a

31.b   32.d       33.b       34.b       35.b

36.c    37.c        38.d       39.a        40.c

41.b   42.c        43.c        44.c        45.b

46.b   47.a        48.b       49.d       50.c

 

ANCIENT INDIA TEST PAPER

ANCIENT INDIA TEST PAPER

1. The themes of the murals of the Ajanta Caves are

1. decorative designs which includes a variety of animals, trees and flowers.

2. portraits of various Buddhas and Bodhisattvas

3. narrative scenes portraying Jataka stories.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of these

 

2. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a) Karpuramanjari             : Harsha

b) Malavikagnimtra           : Kalidas

c) Mudrakshasa               : Visakhadatta

d) Saundarananda            : Asvaghosha

 

3. Ram Saran Sharma, who died in 2011 was an

a) Chemist   

b) Economist

c) Ideologist

d) Archaeologist

 

4. India is a land of many beautiful ancient temples. Which one among the following temples displays the most extensive and sumptuous rock cut shrines and in the most marvelous architectural in India?

a) The Rath temple at Mamallapuram

b) The Kailash temple at Ellora

c) The Chaturbhuja Vishnu temple at Khajuraho

d) The Kaibsu temple at Kanchi

 

5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Ajanta Caves have been painted with scenes from Jainism

2. The crowning achievement of Ellora Caves is the colossal monolithic Kailasanath temple.

3. The Ajanta Caves have been built over a period of eight centuries by different rulers.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a) 2 and 3

b) 1 and 3

c) Only 2

d) All of these

 

6. Which among the following is the oldest dynasty?

a) Maurya

b) Gupta

c) Kushan

d) Kanva

 

7. What do the painting of Ajanta depict?

a) Ramayana

b) Mahabharata

c) Jatakas

d) Panchatantra

 

8. The subject-matter of Ajanta painting pertains of

a) Jainism

b) Buddhism

c) Vaishnavism

d) Shavism

 

9. Where did the game of Chess originate?

a) India

b) Persia

c) Arabia

d) Europe

 

10. The caves and rock-cut temples at Ellora are

a) Hindu and Buddhist

b) Buddhist and Jain

c) Hindu and Jain

d) Hindu, Buddhist and Jain

 

11. When was the 'Panchtantra' written?

a) Maurya period

b) Kanishka period

c) Gupta period

d) Harsha period

 

12. Which one of the following sources of Islam is associated with the teachings of Prophet Mohammad?

a) Quran

b) Hidaya

c) Fiqah

d) Sunah

 

13. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

List I                                                               List II

(Placement of Park/Monument)                     (State)

A. Kazhugumalai                                             1. Gujarat

B. Palitana                                                      2. Madhya Pradesh

C. Mandu                                                        3. Tamil Nadu

D. Ranakpur                                                    4. Karnataka

                                                                      5. Rajasthan

Codes:

             A              B             C              D

a)      3              1              2              5

b)      4              2              1              3

c)      3              2              1              5

d)      4              1              2              3

 

14. Bhagavatism centred around the worship

a) Shiva

b) Bhagavati

c) Skanda

d) Vishnu

 

15. Fa-hien and Huen-Tsang visited the king kingdom of

a) Chandragupta Maurya and Harsha respectively

b) Harsha and Chandragutpa Vikramaditya respectively

c) Chandragupta Vikramaditya and Krishnadeva respectly

d) Chandragutpa Vikramaditya and Harsha respectively

 

16. The decimal system was first known in India at the beginning of

a) AD 2^nd century

b) AD 3^rd century

c) AD 4^th century

d) AD 5^th century

 

17. Which one of the following is considered an encyclopedia of India Medicine?

a) Charaka Samhita

b) Lokayata

c) Brihat Samhita

d) Surya Siddhanta

 

18. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a) Kautilya                     : Arthashastra

b) Hala                          : Gathasaptasati

c) Banbhatta                  : Buddhacharita

d) Kalidasa                    : Abhijnanashakuntalam

 

19. Consider the following foreign visitors to India

1. Al-Beruni

2. Fa-hien

3. Hiuen-Tsang

4. Megasthenese

The correct chronological order in which these persons visited India is

a) 4, 3, 1, 2

b) 2, 4, 3, 1

c) 4, 2, 3, 1

d) 1, 2, 4, 3

 

20. The first major inscription in classical Sanskrit is that of

a) Chandragupta Vikramaditya

b) Kanishak I

c) Rudradaman

d) Samudragupta

 

21. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Ruler                           Dynasty

a) Bimbisar                   Magadha

b) Bindusar                   Mau rya

c) Agnimitra                  Sunga

d) Sasanka                   Kanva

 

22. What is the correct chronological order in which the following kings ruled in India?

1. Bimbisar

2. Mahapadmananda

3. Kanishka I

4. Skandagupta

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

a) 1, 2, 3, 4

b) 4, 3, 2, 1

c) 2, 3, 4, 1

d) 3, 1, 4, 2

 

23. 'Use of white marble, long legs and slender frames, human being as central characters and prominence of kings, princess and places' were the characteristic features of which one of the following ancient art forms of India?

a) Amravati School of Art

b) Gandhara School of Art

c) Mathura School of Art

d) Pahari School of Art

 

24. Which one of the following was known as Chalcolithic Age?

a) Paleolithic Age

b) Neolithic Age

c) Copper-stone Age

d) Iron Age

 

25. Match List with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

List I                                                                     List II

(Finding/Invention Calculation)                           (Indian Scholar)

A. Time taken by the Earth to orbit the Sun              1. Aryabhata

B. Calculation of the value of Pi                               2. Bhaskaracharya

C. Invention of the digit zero                                    3. Bodhayana

D. The game of snakes and ladders                         4. Gyandev

 

26. The cultivation of cereals first started in

a) Neolithic Age

b) Mesolithic Age

c) Paleolithic Age

d) None of these

 

27. Carbon-dating is used to determine the age of

a) fossils

b) plants

c) rocks

d) None of these